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Speed_Kills
Yes but I think whats throwing me off is in a) it ends with “after leaving the passers hand”... so does the arm motioning forward that is mentioned later override the initial definition which says the pass has to leave the players hand?
I guess so with the way they ruled it... but it would seem to me they might want to look at that rule again. IMO your arm moving forward is not enough. Your arm can move forward but you stil possess the ball it shouldn’t be a pass until its released
You're looking at the wrong (a). That one only applies if the ball moves forward, which it didn't. If the ball doesn't move forward, then the second definition where the player is still in control of the ball applies.
This is the one Albany cited: "When a player is in control of the ball and attempting to pass it forward, any intentional forward movement of his hand starts a forward pass."
Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 11/22/2018 05:49AM by dzrams.
